Posts Tagged “SSC”
LDC , DEO Answer key for exam conducted by Staff Selection Commission (SSC) on two days. Answer key and cutoff discussion for each day exam will be available.
Exam for CHSL for LDC/DEO was conducted for three section i.e.
I General Intelligence (50 questions) – 50 Marks
II English Language (Basic Knowledge) ( 50 questions ) – 50 Marks
III Quantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill) (50 questions) – 50 Marks
IV General Awareness (50 questions) – 50 Marks
Candidates may share their expected score in the exam for LDC/DEO exam of CHSL. Based on the score submitted by candidates you get the better pictures of the real cutoff.
Answer Key For CHSL : Click Here
Intelligence Bureau (IB) which operates under Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has conducted the Recruitment exam for the post of Assistant Central Intelligence Officer (ACIO) in Grade II executives post.
Question paper for the exam was damn easy without negative marking. So candidates are high at confidence. It is expected that cutoff for IB ACIO Grade II will be higher or you may expect 85+.
Part II which was Essay writing will be checked for only such candidates who will clear the minimum cutoff.
Answer key for the IB ACIO can be checked : Here
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) combined graduate level exam (CGL) tier II was held today in two session for two papers i.e. Math and English for 200 marks each.
Cutoff and analysis of the SSC CGL II is discussed below. Candidates may share their experiences of SSC CGL II.
Question Paper and Answer key SSC CGL II will be available for the candidates now..
Click Here For Answer key SSC CGL Tier II
Click Here for Compiler exam answer Key
Share your experiences of the SSC CGL II.
Delhi Police Sub Inspector (SI) results for Written test is declared by Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Today. Written Test was held on 19-08-2012. Cutoff for Delhi Police SI Written test are :
MALE : SC : 74 | ST : 74 | OBC : 83 | UR : 90
FEMALE : SC : 75 | ST : 63 | OBC : 80 | UR : 84
Based on the cutoff marks the Paper II of the candidates will be check after Physical test which will be intimated to them separately.
Candidates will be called for Personality Test (Interview) in due course based on their combined performance in Paper-I & Paper-II.
Check results of Male Candidates : Click Here
Check Results of Female Candidates : Click Here
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Written test for SI recruitment in Delhi Police was get over on 19th August. Question Paper for the exam was average type and the Cutoff would be around 95+ as per the answer key for SSC SI exam provided by sorapedia.com.
For Answer key for SSC Delhi Police SI written test : Click Here
General Knowledge and Mathematics was most easiest paper where as English was also scoring one. This is the very good chance for candidates to clear the written test.
Just discuss about your performance in exam.
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) answer key and cutoff discussion for July 08 , 2012 exam conducted in morning shift. Question were tougher than previous year and as paer expectation as per 01 July 2012 exam.
Discuss the cutoff and Answer Key of 08 JULY 2012 SSC CGL Exam.
Get Answer Key of Tier I of CGL 2012 conducted By SSC. Answer Key are available for Following SET….
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING SET 012TG5
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (D) 16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (B)
31. (C) 32. (C) 33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B)
41. (C) 42. (C) 43. (C) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
ANSWER KEY OF TEST FORM NO. 014KN4
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B) 6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (D)
31. (D) 32. (D) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (D) 42. (B) 43. (B) 44. (A) 45. (A) 46. (A) 47. (C) 48. (A) 49. (C) 50. (A)
For Answer key of Morning/Evening Shift : Click Here
SSC CGL 2012 Question and Answer of Few Questions : For Downloading Question Paper : Click Here
1. The first work on genetics was done by
(a) Lamarck (b) Hugo de Vries
(c) Mendel (d) Darwin
2. Term chromosome was first coined by
(a) Hoffmeister (b) Suttan
(c) Boveri (d) Waldeyer
3. Chromosomes were first seen by
(a) Hofmeister (b) Waldeyer
(c) Strasburger (d) Returning
4. Chromosomes found in the salivary glands of Drosophila are
(a) Lampbrush (b) Polytene
(c) Supernumerary (d) B-chromosomes
5. A giant chromosome with a chromonemata is
(a) Lampbrush chromosome (b) Hetero chromosome
(c) Supernumerary chromosome (d) Polytene chromosome
6. Lampbrush chromosome occurs in
(a) Salivary glands (b) Lymph glands
(c) Cancer cells (d) Oocytes
7. Chromosome ends are called
(a) Satellites (b) Telomeres
(c) Centromeres (d) Kinetochores
8. Chromatid is
(a) One half chromosome number of (b) Haploid chromosome
(c) Complete chromosome (d) Duplicate chromosome
9. Centromere is that part of chromosome where
(a) Nucleoli are formed (b) Crossing over takes place
(c) Chromatids are attached (d) Nicking occurs
10. A chromosome with terminal centromere is
(a) Acentric (b) Acrocentric
(c) Metacentric (d) Telocentric
11. A chromosome with centromere in the middle is called
(a) Metacentric (b) Submetacentric
(c) Acrocentric (d) Teloccntric
12. Puffs or Balbiani rings in salivary gland chromosomes are sites of
(a) DNA replication (b) RNA synthesis
(c) DNA duplication (d) Protein synthesis
13. Chromosome theory of inheritance was proposed by
(a) Sutton (1902) (b) Boveri (1902)
(c) Sutton (1902) and Boveri (1902) (d) Correns (1909)
14. Chromatin fibers condense to form chromosomes during
(a) G-Phase (b) S-Phase
(c) Metaphase (d) Prophase
15. The stage for counting of chromosomes is
(a) Early prophase (b) Mid prophase
(c) Late prophase (d) Metaphase
16. More than 200 chromosomes occur in
(a) Chicken (b) Dog
(c) Amoeba (d) Gorilla
17. Drosophila has four homologous pairs of chromosomes. What is the number of linkage groups in this animal?
(a) Four (b) Two
(c) Eight (d) Uncertain
18. The genes which are present in same chromosome are called
(a) Identical genes (b) Allelomorphs
(c) Linked genes (d) Dominant genes
19. Gene for colour blindness in men is located on
(a) X-chromosome only
(b) Y-chromosome only
(c) Either X or Y-chromosome
(d) Both X and Y-chromosomes
20. A colour blind daughter may be born if the
(a) Father is normal and mother is colour blind
(b) Father is colour blind and mother is normal
(c) Father is normal and mother is a carrier
(d) Father is colour blind and mother is a carrier
21. A somatic cell in human male contains
(a) No genes on sex chromosomes
(b) Only one sex linked gene for each character
(c) Two genes for every sex linked character
(d) Genes only on sex chromosomes
22. A normal woman is married to a colour blind man. Children are expected to be
(a) All normal
(b) 50% sons are colour blind
(c) All daughters are normal but carrier, whereas all sons are normal phenotypically as well as genotypically.
(d) None of these
23. Which of the following diseases is sex linked?
(a) Colour blindness (b) Malignancy
(c) Hepatitis (d) Leukemia
24. The genes for the eye colour and size of the wing in Drosophila are located on the same chromosome. They can be separated by
(b) Crossing over
(d) Not be separated at any stage
25. A colour blind son is born to normal parents. It shows that
(a) The father was heterozygous for colour-blindness
(b) The mother was genotypically homozygous
(c) The mother was heterozygous for colour-blindness
(d) Both parents carried a recessive gene for the disorder
26. Chromosomal constitutions in human female can best be written as
(a) 46 (b) 44 + 2
(c) 44A + XX (d) 44A 4- XY
27. The sex-linked characters are those
(a) Which are related to sexual physiology
(b) The genes of which are present on the sex chromosomes
(c) Which appear either in male or in female
(d) Which are controlled by sex hormone
1. Which of the following cereal was among the first to be used by man?
a) Barley b) Oat
c) Rye d) Wheat
2. Lysine is an essential amino acid for man and, therefore, has to be an essential component of human diet. The highest content of this amino acid is found in:
a) Wheat b) Rye
c) Oat d) Barley
3. Consider the following crop plants cultivated in our country:
1. Maize 2. Spinach
3. Tobacco 4. Barley
Which of these are long – day plants?
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4 d) 2 and 3
4. Which of the following plants belong to the same plant family?
1. Apple 2. Apricot
3. Al nond 3. Peach
Select the correct answer from the codes give below:
a) 1 and 4 b) 2 and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. A plant known only in cultivation, having arisen under domestication is referred to as:
a) Cultigen b) Cultivar
c) Clone d) Scion
6. The pores in leaves through which liquid water oozes out at times are called:
a) Hydathodes b) Lenticels
c) Phyllopores d) Stomata
7. The tissue that is involved in the transport of food material in plants is called:
a) Parenchyma b) Phloem
c) Sclerenchyma d) Xylem
8. Match the crop plants in List I with their botanical names in List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the list:
List I List II
(Crop Plants) (Botanical Name)
a) Cotton 1. Mangifera indica
b) Grapes 2. Oryza Sativa
c) Rice 3. Gossypium hirsutum
d) Mango 4. Vitis vinifera
a) a-2; b-3; c-1; d-4 b) a-3; b-4; c-2; d-1
c) a-3; b-1; c-2; d-4 d) a-4; b-1; c-2; d-3
9. The international Board for Plant Genetic Resources (IBPGR) was established in 1974 at:
a) New Delhi b) Philippines
c) Boston d) Rome
10. Dr. E.H. Wilson, one of the greatest among the plant hunters, is well – known for his collection an introduction of the ‘regal lily’ to the United States of America. The plant was collected from:
a) China b) Japan
c) India d) Scandinavia
11. Plants that are unable to synthesize their own food and are, therefore, dependent on other sources of food are called:
a) Parasites b) Auxotrophs
c) Chemotrophs d) Heterotrophs
12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
a) Fruit repening 1. Gibberellins
b) Cell division 2. Auxins
c) Apical dominance 3. Cytokinins
d) Stem elongation 4. Ethylene
a) a-3; b-1; c-2; d-4 b) a-4; b-3; c-2; d-1
c) a-1; b-2; c-3; d-4 d) a-2; b-1; c-4; d-3
13. The ripening of fruits can be accelerated by:
a) Decreasing oxygen concentration of the surroundings
b) Increasing ethylene concentration of the surroundings
c) Reducing water supply to the plants
d) Spraying urea during maturation of fruits
14. Nearly 90% of the global food supply comes from
a) Only five plant species
b) One dozen plant species
c) Nearly two dozen plant species
d) More than three dozen plant species
15. The primary role of vegetables and fruits in our diet is to supply us necessary minerals and vitamins. Which of the following vegetables and fruit crop/s is/are a rich source of Vitamin A (or its precursor)
a) Carrot b) Tomato
c) Mango d) All the above
16. The genetic material in viruses is:
a) Double – stranded DNA b) Single – stranded DNA
c) RNA d) All the above
17. A gram of fertile agricultural soil may contain bacteria up to:
a) Fifty thousand b) Five hundred thousand
c) Five million d) One billion and above
18. A fungus, Trichoderma viride, one of the worst pests of World War II, is now being cultured by the United States Army because of its capacity to:
a) Convert newspaper wastes and other municipal debris into glucose
b) Convert newspaper wastes, straw, and peanut shells into useful sugars
c) Synthesize cellulose
d) Synthesize various compounds for chemical warfare
19. A disease that occurs periodically in a widespread area causing devastating damage to crop plants is referred to as:
a) Endemic b) Epiphytotic
c) Extensive d) Sporadic
20. Match the plant disease in List I with the causative agent in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I List II
(Plant disease) (Causative agent)
a) Karnal bunt 1. Fungus
b) Citrus dieback 2. Bacterium
c) Sesamum 3. Virus
d) Tunda disease 4. Mycoplasma
a) a-2; b-3; c-4; d-1 b) a-1; b-5; c-4; d-2
c) a-5; b-2; c-3; d-4 d) a-4; b-5; c-3; d-1
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducted the CGL 2012 Tier I exam at various center in India. This time Exam syllabus was changed and question were very tough in Math. There were more than 50% question from Geometry and trigo.
Check out some of the Question of SSC CGL 2012. Candidates may share more question
1)First woman from india to be conferred the sainthood by pope benedict XVI is ??
2) Ozone affects human health by causing severe pulmonary edema at a concentration of (in ppm)
3)Deshbandhu is the title of ??
Ans: chitrangandas das
4)Top 3 Gold Metalist countries in Beijing Olympics ??
5) 8 : 12 :: 6 : ?
6)Find wrong in the series: 21,28,33,35,37,36
141, 14, 41, 81
8)Eagle : swoops :: duck : ?
Swims, flits, waddles, floats
9)wrong number in the series:0 ,7 , 28 , 63 , 124 , 215
10) The brightest planet is
a) Venus b) Mercury c) Jupiter d) mars
a)adabcd b)cdbbca c)daabbc d)bdbcba
12)The 65th National Football Championship ( santosh trophy 2011) was won by
a) Bengal b) Punjab c) Manipur d) Goa
Mozart, bach, socrates, beethoven
14) The least value of 2sin*2 A +3cos*2 a is???
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) Answer key and Cutoff Analysis for Combined Graduate Level (CGL) Tier I is available now.
ANSWER KEY FOR SSC CGL 2013 : Click Here
Answer Key for All the Session of exam of SSC CGL i.e. Morning Session and Afternoon session are available below. Candidates may also share their experience and cutoff of CGL Tier – I exam.
Answer key available Here
Staff Selection Commission (SSC) has now made admit card for Combined Graduate Level prelims Exam (CGL) available for download.
All the candidates who have filled the application for Staff Selection Commission (SSC) may download the admit card from below link.
Download the Admit card for CGL : Click Here